Free ISC CCSP Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps [Q389-Q406]

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Free ISC CCSP Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps

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ISC2 CCSP Exam Certification Details:

Exam Price$599 (USD)
Number of Questions125
Exam CodeCCSP
Duration180 mins
Sample QuestionsISC2 CCSP Sample Questions
Passing Score700/1000
Schedule ExamPearson VUE


ISC CCSP (Certified Cloud Security Professional) certification is a globally recognized credential that validates the knowledge and skills required to secure cloud environments. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is designed for experienced IT and information security professionals who work with cloud computing technologies and services.


The CCSP certification program covers a range of topics, including cloud concepts, architecture, design, operations, compliance, and security. It is designed for professionals who are responsible for managing cloud security in organizations, including security managers, IT managers, security architects, and consultants. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification program is also suitable for individuals who want to enhance their knowledge and skills in cloud security and advance their careers in the field. The CCSP certification program is recognized by major cloud service providers, including Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform, making it a valuable credential for professionals working in cloud environments.

 

NEW QUESTION # 389
Which of the following would be considered an example of insufficient due diligence leading to security or operational problems when moving to a cloud?

  • A. Monitoring
  • B. Reliance on physical network controls
  • C. Programming languages used
  • D. Use of a remote key management system

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Many organizations in a traditional data center make heavy use of physical network controls for security.
Although this is a perfectly acceptable best practice in a traditional data center, this reliance is not something that will port to a cloud environment. The failure of an organization to properly understand and adapt to the difference in network controls when moving to a cloud will likely leave an application with security holes and vulnerabilities. The use of a remote key management system, monitoring, or certain programming languages would not constitute insufficient due diligence by itself.


NEW QUESTION # 390
Which of the following roles would be responsible for managing memberships in federations and the use and integration of federated services?

  • A. Cloud service integrator
  • B. Cloud service administrator
  • C. Cloud service business manager
  • D. Inter-cloud provider

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The inter-cloud provider is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers, as well as overseeing and managing federations and federated services. A cloud service administrator is responsible for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services, as well as providing usage reporting and dealing with service problems. The cloud service integrator is responsible for connecting existing systems and services with a cloud. The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing the billing, auditing, and purchasing of cloud services.


NEW QUESTION # 391
Firewalls can detect attack traffic by using all these methods except ____________.

  • A. Point of origination
  • B. Identity of the malicious user
  • C. Signature matching
  • D. Known past behavior in the environment

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 392
The physical layout of a cloud data center campus should include redundancies of all the following except
____________.
Response:

  • A. Points of personnel ingress
  • B. HVAC units
  • C. Generator fuel storage
  • D. Generators

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 393
The BCDR plan/process should be written and documented in such a way that it can be used by ____________.
Response:

  • A. Users
  • B. Someone with the requisite skills
  • C. Essential BCDR team members
  • D. Regulators

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 394
Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

  • A. Data in use
  • B. Archived
  • C. Data in transit
  • D. Data at rest

Answer: C

Explanation:
TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects.
Archived data would be the same as data at rest.


NEW QUESTION # 395
With software-defined networking (SDN), which two types of network operations are segregated to allow for granularity and delegation of administrative access and functions?

  • A. Filtering and firewalling
  • B. Forwarding and protocol
  • C. Firewalling and forwarding
  • D. Filtering and forwarding

Answer: D

Explanation:
With SDN, the filtering and forwarding capabilities and administration are separated. This allows the cloud provider to build interfaces and management tools for administrative delegation of filtering configuration, without having to allow direct access to underlying network equipment. Firewalling and protocols are both terms related to networks, but they are not components SDN is concerned with.


NEW QUESTION # 396
Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?

  • A. Sensitive data exposure
  • B. Unvalidated redirect and forwards
  • C. Security misconfiguration
  • D. Insecure direct object references

Answer: D

Explanation:
An insecure direct object reference occurs when a developer has in their code a reference to something on the application side, such as a database key, the directory structure of the application, configuration information about the hosting system, or any other information that pertains to the workings of the application that should not be exposed to users or the network. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware of phishing attacks.
Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data. Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner.


NEW QUESTION # 397
Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?

  • A. High cost and unique resources
  • B. Limited access and service provider interaction
  • C. Minimal management effort and shared resources
  • D. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.


NEW QUESTION # 398
Hardening the operating system refers to all of the following except:

  • A. Removing antimalware agents
  • B. Limiting administrator access
  • C. Removing unnecessary services and libraries
  • D. Closing unused ports

Answer: A

Explanation:
Removing antimalware agents. Hardening the operating system means making it more secure. Limiting administrator access, closing unused ports, and removing unnecessary services and libraries all have the potential to make an OS more secure. But removing antimalware agents would actually make the system less secure. If anything, antimalware agents should be added, not removed.


NEW QUESTION # 399
Which of the following threat types can occur when an application does not properly validate input and can be leveraged to send users to malicious sites that appear to be legitimate?

  • A. Insecure direct object references
  • B. Unvalidated redirects and forwards
  • C. Sensitive data exposure
  • D. Security miscomfiguration

Answer: B

Explanation:
Many web applications offer redirect or forward pages that send users to different, external sites. If these pages are not properly secured and validated, attackers can use the application to forward users off to sites for phishing or malware attempts. These attempts can often be more successful than direct phishing attempts because users will trust the site or application that sent them there, and they will assume it has been properly validated and approved by the trusted application's owners or operators. Security misconfiguration occurs when applications and systems are not properly configured for security--often a result of misapplied or inadequate baselines. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.


NEW QUESTION # 400
What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?

  • A. Transport
  • B. Testing
  • C. Tampering with data
  • D. TLS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation
Any application that sends data to the user will face the potential that the user could manipulate or alter the data, whether it resides in cookies, GET or POST commands, or headers, or manipulates client-side validations. If the user receives data from the application, it is crucial that the application validate and verify any data that is received back from the user.


NEW QUESTION # 401
Your organization is developing software for wide use by the public. You have decided to test it in a cloud environment, in a PaaS model. Which of the following should be of particular concern to your organization for this situation?
Response:

  • A. Backdoors
  • B. Regulatory compliance
  • C. High-speed network connectivity
  • D. Vendor lock-in

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 402
Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?

  • A. Confidentiality
  • B. Fault tolerance
  • C. Integrity
  • D. Availability

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disaster recovery and business continuity are vital concerns with availability. If data is destroyed or compromised, having regular backup systems in place as well as being able to perform disaster recovery in the event of a major or widespread problem allows operations to continue with an acceptable loss of time and data to management. This also ensures that sensitive data is protected and persisted in the event of the loss or corruption of data systems or physical storage systems.


NEW QUESTION # 403
The BC/DR kit should include all of the following except:

  • A. Flashlight
  • B. Annotated asset inventory
  • C. Hard drives
  • D. Documentation equipment

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
While hard drives may be useful in the kit (for instance, if they store BC/DR data such as inventory lists, baselines, and patches), they are not necessarily required. All the other items should be included.


NEW QUESTION # 404
One of the security challenges of operating in the cloud is that additional controls must be placed on file storage systems because ____________.
Response:

  • A. Virtual machines are stored as snapshotted files when not in use
  • B. File stores are always kept in plain text in the cloud
  • C. There is no way to sanitize file storage space in the cloud
  • D. Virtualization necessarily prevents the use of application-based security controls

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 405
Which format is the most commonly used standard for exchanging information within a federated identity system?

  • A. SAML
  • B. HTML
  • C. JSON
  • D. XML

Answer: A

Explanation:
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most common data format for information exchange within a federated identity system. It is used to transmit and exchange authentication and authorization data.XML is similar to SAML, but it's used for general-purpose data encoding and labeling and is not used for the exchange of authentication and authorization data in the way that SAML is for federated systems. JSON is used similarly to XML, as a text-based data exchange format that typically uses attribute-value pairings, but it's not used for authentication and authorization exchange. HTML is used only for encoding web pages for web browsers and is not used for data exchange--and certainly not in a federated system.


NEW QUESTION # 406
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