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NEW QUESTION # 77
An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)
- A. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
- B. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
- C. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
- D. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:
* 1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid
* rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid
* 3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid
* 8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect, because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:
* 1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter
* aB11: a 4-character password that is valid
* Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
* 7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques1
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?
- A. One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process
- B. Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting
- C. Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning
- D. Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?
- A. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
- B. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
- C. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
- D. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
NEW QUESTION # 80
Mark the correct sentences:
* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"
* A human mistake may produce a defect
* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it
* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure
* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes
- A. II, III, IV
- B. I, II
- C. IV, V
- D. II, IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
* The question is about marking the correct sentences among the given statements related to defects, failures, and mistakes. According to the ISTQB glossary, the definitions of these terms are1:
* Defect: A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function, e.g. an incorrect statement or data definition. A defect, if encountered during execution, may cause a failure of the component or system.
* Failure: An event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits.
* Mistake: A human action that produces an incorrect result.
* Therefore, out of the five given statements, only two are correct, namely:
* A human mistake may produce a defect: This is true, as a mistake is a source or cause of a defect, e.g. a programmer may make a mistake in writing a code statement, which results in a defect in the software component.
* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure: This is true, as a defect is a potential or actual cause of a failure, e.g. a defect in the software component may cause the system to fail to perform a required function when the defect is encountered during execution.
* The other three statements are incorrect, namely:
* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures": This is false, as defects are not a result of environmental conditions, but of mistakes or other factors, and defects are not the same as failures, but rather the causes of failures.
* A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it: This is false, as a system may not necessarily fail completely or stop operating when a failure occurs, but may continue to operate with reduced functionality or performance, or with incorrect results.
* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes: This is false, as defects can occur due to various reasons, not only technology changes, such as human mistakes, design flaws, requirement changes, hardware failures, etc.
References:
* 1: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms 4.0, 2023, available at ISTQB) and ASTQB).
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?
- A. Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing
- B. Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects
- C. Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools
- D. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because static testing and dynamic testing are both types of testing that can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics, such as usability, performance, security, reliability, etc. Static testing is a type of testing that involves the analysis of software work products, such as requirements, design, code, or test cases, without executing them. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves the execution of software work products, such as code or test cases, using inputs and verifying outputs. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be applied to different test levels and test types, and can use different test techniques and tools, to evaluate the non-functional characteristics of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.1.1, Section 2.2.1.2
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories
- B. Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants
- C. Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item
- D. Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acceptance criteria for user stories are crucial in defining the specific requirements that a piece of software must meet to be accepted by the user or stakeholder. These criteria often include data definitions such as format, allowed values, and default values, ensuring that the software behaves correctly with the expected data inputs.
Option A is incorrect because user acceptance tests are not usually automated; they are often conducted manually by end-users. Option C is incorrect because acceptance criteria should cover both positive and negative scenarios to ensure comprehensive testing. Option D is incorrect because tests derived from acceptance criteria can indeed be included in the testing quadrants, particularly in the quadrant related to business-facing tests that critique the product.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?
- A. Security vulnerabilities
- B. Potentially endless loops
- C. Referencing a variable with an undefined value
- D. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and potential bugs12. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)3. MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing, which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures4. Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools. The other options, such as potentially endless loops, referencing a variable with an undefined value, and security vulnerabilities, are issues that can be identified by static analysis tools. Static analysis tools can detect potentially endless loops by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the program and checking for conditions that may never become false5. Static analysis tools can detect referencing a variable with an undefined value by checking the scope and initialization of variables and reporting any use of uninitialized variables6. Static analysis tools can detect security vulnerabilities by checking for common patterns of insecure code, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting, and weak encryption. Reference = What Is Static Analysis? Static Code Analysis Tools - Perforce Software, How Static Code Analysis Works | Perforce, Static Code Analysis: Techniques, Top 5 Benefits & 3 Challenges, What is MTBF? Mean Time Between Failures Explained | Perforce, Static analysis tools - Software Testing MCQs - CareerRide, ISTQB_Chapter3 | Quizizz, [Static Code Analysis for Security Vulnerabilities | Perforce].
NEW QUESTION # 84
An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)
- A. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
- B. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
- C. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
- D. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:
1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid
rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid
3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid
8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect, because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:
1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter aB11: a 4-character password that is valid Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
NEW QUESTION # 85
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
- A. Inspection
- B. Audit
- C. Walkthrough
- D. Informal review
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 86
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
- B. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
- C. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- D. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
Answer: A
Explanation:
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates. The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30 ± 8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
- B. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- C. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
- D. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics.
Non-functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 40.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?
- A. Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests
- B. Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests
- C. Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project
- D. Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traceability is the ability to trace the relationships between the items of the test basis, such as the requirements, the design, the risks, etc., and the test artifacts, such as the test cases, the test results, the defects, etc. Traceability can provide various benefits for the testing process, such as improving the test coverage, the test quality, the test efficiency, and the test communication. However, not all the statements given are true about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products. The statement that is not true is option C, which says that test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly. This statement is false, because test objectives are the goals or the purposes of testing, which can vary depending on the test level, the test type, the test technique, the test environment, the test stakeholder, etc. Test objectives can be defined in terms of the test basis, the test coverage, the test quality, the test risk, the test cost, the test time, etc. Test objectives should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound, and they should be aligned with the project objectives and the quality characteristics. Test objectives should not be the same for all test levels, as different test levels have different focuses, scopes, and perspectives of testing, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. The other statements are true about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products, such as:
Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to identify which tests are affected by a change in the test basis, such as a new requirement, a modified design, a revised risk, etc., and to determine the necessary actions to update, re-execute, or re-evaluate the tests. Traceability can also help to estimate the effort, the cost, and the time needed to implement the change and to verify its impact on the software system.
Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to measure the test coverage, which is the degree to which the test basis is exercised by the test cases. Traceability can help to identify which test basis items are covered, partially covered, or not covered by the tests, and to evaluate the adequacy, the completeness, and the effectiveness of the testing process. Traceability can also help to identify the gaps, the overlaps, or the redundancies in the test coverage, and to prioritize, optimize, or improve the test cases.
Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing: This statement is true, because traceability can help to provide evidence, documentation, and justification for the testing activities, results, and outcomes. Traceability can help to demonstrate that the testing process follows the standards, the regulations, the policies, and the best practices that are applicable to the software system, the project, or the organization. Traceability can also help to verify that the testing process meets the expectations, the needs, and the satisfaction of the users and the stakeholders. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Traceability, Test Basis, Test Artifact, Test Objective, Test Level, Test Coverage, Test Quality, Test Risk, Test Cost, Test Time2
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?
- A. Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
- B. Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
- C. Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
- D. Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.
Answer: B
Explanation:
State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 90
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:
- A. can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"
- B. are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"
- C. must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented
- D. are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"
Answer: A
Explanation:
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story are the conditions that must be met for the user story to be considered done and to deliver the expected value to the user. They are often written in different formats, such as rule-oriented, scenario-oriented, or table-oriented, depending on the nature and complexity of the user story. They represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation, which is one of the so called "3 C's" of user stories. The other two aspects are card and conversation. Card refers to the concise and informal description of the user story, usually following the template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]". Conversation refers to the ongoing dialogue between the stakeholders and the team members to clarify and refine the user story and its acceptance criteria. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?
- A. Fault seeding tool
- B. Test data preparation tool
- C. Containerization tool
- D. Static analysis tool
Answer: D
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard. Static analysis tools analyze code without executing it, checking for adherence to coding standards, potential errors, and code quality issues. They are designed to detect deviations from predefined coding standards and ensure that the code conforms to best practices and guidelines.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.3 on Static Analysis and its applications
* The syllabus explains that static analysis tools are used to enforce coding standards and improve code quality by detecting issues early in the development process.
CTFL NEW
NEW QUESTION # 92
In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?
- A. It marks a point where the program's execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.
- B. It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.
- C. It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.
- D. It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In branch testing, a conditional branch represents a decision point in the software program where the flow of execution can take different paths based on specific conditions. For example, this could be an "if-else" statement, a "switch-case" statement, or loops where different execution paths are taken depending on the evaluated condition. This type of testing ensures that all possible paths and conditions are executed at least once, which helps in identifying any potential defects in different branches of the code.
NEW QUESTION # 93
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?
- A. Q3
- B. Q4
- C. Q2
- D. Q1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during the two-hour test session belong to the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing. The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. The unscripted tests performed by the tester in the given scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester's experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usabilityissues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are incorrect, because:
The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing, system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system, and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at different levels of integration.
The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing, scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders.
The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system, and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency, the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or environments.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, Acceptance Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing, Compatibility Testing
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
- A. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.
- B. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
- C. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.
- D. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Effort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity, and quality of the software product and the testing activities1. Budget is a constraint that may affect the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured in terms of person-hours, person-days, or person-months2.
* The other options are correct because:
* A. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up, as they are interrelated aspects of the test planning process3. Resources are the people, tools, equipment, and facilities needed to perform the testing activities4. Schedule is the time frame and sequence of the testing activities, aligned with the project milestones and deadlines5.
* B. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known, as it affects the number and severity of the defects that may be found and the rework that may be needed to fix them6. Quality is the degree to which the software product satisfies the specified requirements and meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients7.
* D. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques, which relies on the judgment and expertise of the testers and other project stakeholders to estimate the test effort based on similar projects or tasks done in the past. Experience based estimation can be useful when there is a lack of historical data, formal methods, or detailed information about the software product and the testing activities.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159
* 7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
* [8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160
* [9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161
NEW QUESTION # 95
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?
- A. Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
- B. Defect reports should be created for every review found
- C. Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
- D. Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a structured review process, it is essential to plan reviews carefully and manage them effectively.
Reviewing large work products in one go is not recommended because it can lead to oversight of issues due to fatigue or information overload. It is more efficient to break down large work products into smaller, manageable parts and review them incrementally. This ensures a thorough and effective review process.
Additionally, other practices such as planning for the review, starting discussions during review initiation, and creating defect reports for found issues are standard recommendations for an effective review process.
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Bottom of Form
NEW QUESTION # 96
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
- D. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 97
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:
- A. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
- B. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques
- C. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid
- D. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid because they are more focused, isolated, and atomic. They usually test individual units or components of the software system, such as classes, methods, or functions. They are also easier to maintain and execute, as they have fewer dependencies and interactions with other parts of the system. The tests at the top layer of the test pyramid, on the other hand, are slower because they cover larger pieces of functionalities, such as user interfaces, workflows, or end-to-end scenarios. They also have more dependencies and interactions with other systems, such as databases, networks, or external services. They are more complex and costly to maintain and execute, as they require more setup and teardown procedures, test data, and test environments. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.2.1, Test Pyramid1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Pyramid2
NEW QUESTION # 98
A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.
Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?
- A. You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification
- B. The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed
- C. You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue
- D. You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
As a functional tester, you should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue. A defect report is a document that records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect detected during testing, and provides information for further investigation and resolution.
A defect report should include relevant information such as the defect summary, the defect description, the defect severity, the defect priority, the defect status, the defect origin, the defect category, the defect reproduction steps, the defect screenshots, the defect attachments, etc. Opening a defect report is a good practice for any tester who finds a defect in the software system, regardless of the type or level of testing performed. The other options are not recommended, because:
The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality, but that does not mean that as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed. Performance efficiency is a quality characteristic that measures how well the software system performs its functions under stated conditions, such as the response time, the resource utilization, the throughput, etc.
Performance efficiency is an important aspect of the user experience, especially for web applications that run on different devices and networks. Even if the functional tests passed, meaning that the software system met the functional requirements, the performance issue observed on some devices could still affect the user satisfaction, the usability, the reliability, and the security of the software system.
Therefore, as a functional tester, you have the responsibility to report the performance issue as a defect, and provide as much information as possible to help the developers or the performance testers to investigate and resolve it.
NEW QUESTION # 99
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