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NEW QUESTION # 40
A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
* Provide a secure zone.
* Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
* Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?
- A. Zero Trust
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. AAA
- D. CIA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
References:
5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.
8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?
- A. Clustering servers
- B. Load balancers
- C. Geographic dispersion
- D. Off-site backups
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.
The other options are not the best ways to address the company's concern:
Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.
Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization,efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.
Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 CertificationStudy Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. :
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Select two).
- A. The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
- B. The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
- C. The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
- D. The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
- E. The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
- F. The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
Answer: E
Explanation:
An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.
References
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671 CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
- A. DLP
- B. SCAP
- C. Net Flow
- D. Antivirus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:
* Provide a secure zone.
* Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
* Reduce the scope of threats.
Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?
- A. Zero Trust
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. AAA
- D. CIA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
References:
5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.
8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. SQL injection
- C. VM escape
- D. Memory injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a database misconfiguration or a flaw in the application code that interacts with the database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL statements into the user input fields or the URL parameters that are sent to the database server. These statements can then execute unauthorized commands, such as reading, modifying, deleting, or creating data, or even taking over the database server. SQL injection can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215 1
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
- A. Authentication
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Adaptive identity
- D. Access logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document. References = Non-repudiation - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 - Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. Jailbreaking
- C. Cross-site scripting
- D. Side loading
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?
- A. DLP
- B. SNMP
- C. IDS
- D. SIEM
Answer: D
Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page
393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.
NEW QUESTION # 49
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
- A. Unauthorized attacker
- B. Watering-hole
- C. Insider threat
- D. Social engineering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization's network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 251. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 252.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
- A. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
- B. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
- C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
- D. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
NEW QUESTION # 52
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
- A. Jump server
- B. HSM
- C. Load balancer
- D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A loadbalancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References = How to access a remote server using a jump host Jump server RADIUS Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) Hardware Security Module (HSM)
[What is an HSM?]
[Load balancing (computing)]
[What is Load Balancing?]
NEW QUESTION # 53
A systems administrator set up a perimeter firewall but continues to notice suspicious connections between internal endpoints. Which of the following should be set up in order to mitigate the threat posed by the suspicious activity?
- A. Access control list
- B. Host-based firewall
- C. Application allow list
- D. Web application firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual endpoint and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can help to mitigate the threat posed by suspicious connections between internal endpoints by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application. A host-based firewall is different from a web application firewall, which is a type of firewall that protects web applications from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and session hijacking. A host-based firewall is also different from an access control list, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources, such as files, folders, printers, or routers. A host-based firewall is also different from an application allow list, which is a list of applications that are authorized to run on an endpoint, preventing unauthorized or malicious applications from executing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 254
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
- A. Authentication
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Adaptive identity
- D. Access logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document. References = Non-repudiation - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 - Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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